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It seems most of the definitions on here are accurate, but just to clear some things up:  A "pedophile", according to the American Psychological Association and by it's very definition is: Someone, who for a period of 6 months or more, has arousing fantasies, urges, or feelings towards prepubescent children. The APA states that the person must be at least 16 or older, however there have been cases where younger teens have been diagnosed with "warning signs" that may indicate an unnatural sexual attraction.  Which means is that: 1) The sexual attraction towards young teens (13-17 yr olds) is in a completely different category known as ephebophilia. (The age of consent does not apply because it includes pubescent teens)  2) The words pedophile and child molester are not synonymous in that "pedophilia" describes the sexual attraction whereas "child molester" describes the sexual abuse. Furthermore, studies show that many child molesters aren't even attracted to children, which is why molestation is considered more of a power crime rather than a sex crime. In other words, many pedophiles do not abuse children, and many child molesters have no sexual interest in children - which is why they are two separate words. (A molested child is not a victim of "pedophilia", he/she is a victim of "child molestation" - even if pedophilic urges led to the act.)

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